exactly four hundred years ago today

Richard Goss

Message 34587 · 27 Mar 2003 00:17:22 · Fixed-width font · Whole thread

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"Dick Goss writes that Vizcaíno was not a Spaniard but a Basque and that
there
was no Spain at his time. (huh???)"

What in English was called Spain, was a collection of kingdoms ruled by the
same, or relatives of the same, monarch. All parts of Spain began to share
the monarch with the marriage of Ferdinand and Isabella who, though married,
ruled their respective kingdoms separately. Since Isabella (Castile-Leon,
incl Al Andaluz as monarch, and the Vascongades as head of state) paid for
Columbus the New World discoveries became a part of Castile-Leon, and
Ferdinand had no part in their management during her life time. When
Isabella died, the next ruler was their daughter, Juana, la Loca, but
controlled by Ferdinand as regent (she was sort of put away). When Ferdinand
died, she continued to rule both Castile-Leon, etc. and Aragon, etc. as the
heir of both Ferdinand and Isabella in name only as her son, Don Carlos (as
in the opera, Hapsburg, Burgundy, etc.) acted as her regent rulling each
kingdom under separate feudal governments. When she finally died, Don Carlos
actually ruled only a few years before he retired and left his territories
(most of the Americas, and most of Continental Europe except for France) to
his son Philip. The English use of the term Spain is nothing more than the
personification of Philip and his collective kingdoms, which had, as I
mentioned no national reality, as I mentioned until 1936.

Within the Spanish (adjective) Hapsburg monarchy, considerable interchange
of upwardly mobile soldiers, priests, and civil servants between the
collected territories. These people still considered themselves to be of
their familial place of origin, whatever, as in the case of Vizcaino (means
person from Bisquay), their place of birth.

"Furthermore, common references certainly refer to Sebastián Vizcaíno as a
"Spanish explorer."

The operant word here is "common" as explained above.

"If there was no Spain at the time of Elizabeth I, then whose "Armada" was
defeated in 1588, ...?"

If you check the famous paintings of this event notice that the arms on the
sails of this armada are those of Castile-Leon only, and do not include the
"Chains" of Navarre, the red and gold stripes of Aragon-Catalunya, nor the
pomegranete of Al Andaluz (including Huelva). Also notice the "Spanish"
quarter on the arms of L.A.P.D.

"Spanish ambassador, et al", adjective, as in the Ambassador from the
Spanish court? No nation by definition involved.

Note that California, was a Spanish (Castillian) speaking province of the
viceroyalty. Father Serra (would be Sierra in Castillian) wrote and spoke in
Castillian, even though he was, and is considered a Mallorcan ("Greater
Catalunya") saint, whose native language, and early writings have more in
common with the language of Barcelona and Provence (France) than that of
either peoples have with Paris or Madrid.

"... Juan Rodríguez Cabrillo, who claimed it for the King of Spain...."
suggest you read some <<un>>common historical documents to see whether Juan
said "Spain" or "Castile" in his claim.

To stir the pot further, there is a book out that suggests that Father Serra
is not the only Mallorquin in American history. It makes a good case for
Columbus, or at least his family, being from Felanitx on Mallorca. While
nothing remains in his handwriting, earlest copies, later translated
indicate that he wrote in Mallorquin, a dialect of Catalan, not in
Castillian or in Italian. His first approach for cash was to his king,
Ferdinand, not Isabella.

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