> It was my understanding that for many years > "Scottish Country Dancing" was a compulsory > subject in the school curriculum in Scotland. > (Please correct me if I am wrong.)
Your right, but the tense of your first sentence
conveys all that needs be said.
> If this was the case, I would suggest that more > Scots at one time may have come into > contact with "Scottish Country Dancing" than with > "Ceilidh Dancing".
At one time they did, principally due to the fact that
the bulk of the population of Scotland resides in the
Lowlands and for many years ceilidh dancing was not an
organised activity there.
> When did "the vast majority of Scots" reach the > conclusion that "Ceilidh Dancing > is Scottish Country Dancing"?
When the educational authorities ceased to teach any
form of dancing at all and a generation who could not
tell that 'ceilidh dancing' and 'reeling' were not
'Scottish Country Dancing' but merely 'Scottish
versus prep. against [L.]
Are you serious ?
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